Discussion: The Research Process Final Exam

Discussion: The Research Process Final Exam ORDER NOW FOR CUSTOMIZED AND ORIGINAL ESSAY PAPERS ON Discussion: The Research Process Final Exam Final Exam attached – multiple choice questions 100 questions total, with a 80% on the final exam needed to be acceptable – I am happy to extend time where needed. Discussion: The Research Process Final Exam The class is called “The Research Process”, and is part of a masters program. I have uploaded both the final and the study guide for the entire class. The topic covers an overview of the various research methods, research design, guidance in planning research strategy and documentation of research data. It also explores and analyzes examples of research from many different disciplines, the development and use of computer-aided research, writing skills and logical argumentation techniques required in the research field. grm697.pdf grm_study_guide_.pdf GRM 697 Text: Exploring Research 8th Edition, 2012 ISBN-13: 9780205093816 Author(s): Neil J. Salkind Publisher: Pearson 925 North Spurgeon Street, Santa Ana, CA 92701 Phone: 714-547-9625 Fax: 714-547-5777 www.calcoast.edu 12/14 Final Examination The Research Process All rights reserved. No part of this may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording or by any information storage and retrieval system without written permission, except for the inclusion of brief quotation in review. Copyright © 2014 by California Coast University GRM697 The Research Process Final Examination Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet) 1. Which of the following is true of the scientific method of inquiry? a. complete once the hypothesis has been tested b. will vary depending on the specific research question c. systematic process that is used to answer questions d. different in basic research than in applied research 2. In true experimental designs, what does research attempt to isolate and control? a. factors not tested that could be responsible for any effects except the ones being tested b. statistics that are used to interpret the results c. laboratory conditions to maximize the validity of the experiment d. answers of the people in the study 3. What is the major difference between applied and basic research? a. basic research takes longer to complete b. applied research is less important c. basic research is more traditional d. basic research has no immediate application 4. Discussion: The Research Process Final Exam What is another term for basic research? a. real research b. pure research c. applied research d. baseline research 5. How many steps are included in the research process? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 9 5 GRM697 The Research Process Final Examination 6. What is the most important step in the research process? a. testing the hypothesis b. data collection c. formulating the hypothesis d. asking the question 7. Samantha is interested in studying the relationship between gender differences and verbal ability. This is an example of what type of research? a. descriptive b. quasi-experimental c. correlational d. gender research 8. Ann divides her classes into two groups—a treatment group and a non-treatment group—to test whether her new method of teaching subtraction is better than her old method. This is an example of what type of research? a. historical b. quasi-experimental c. correlational d. experimental research 9. The scientific method is described in the textbook as _____________. a. restricted to use in correlational research b. having no immediate application at the time research is completed c. a standard sequence of steps in formulating and answering a question d. the study of phenomena within the social and cultural context in which they occur 10. What does a good research question usually pursue? a. a small part of a broad topic b. a topic unrelated to any other topics c. the same thing as the null hypothesis d. a broad topic 11. Which of the following best describes independent variables? a. not manipulated by the experimenter b. manipulated to assess the effect of the treatment c. unrelated to the treatment d. not necessary 6 GRM697 The Research Process Final Examination 12. Sampling allows researchers to overcome the problem of which of the following? a. overcrowded laboratories b. biased subject response c. not having access to the whole population d. not having access to the proper statistical methods 13. If you read that a study’s finding was significant at the p < .05 level, you could conclude that there is a less than 5% probability that ______________. a. Discussion: The Research Process Final Exam the results will translate to real world situations b. most researchers in that area would consider the finding to have clinical meaning c. the researchers used unreliable measures d. the results were due to chance 14. There will be no relationship between children’s time in day care and later academic achievement. This is an example of which of the following? a. a research hypothesis b. a factorial design c. a correlational hypothesis d. a null hypothesis 15. A research hypothesis _______________. a. represents an equality b. is represented by Roman symbols c. is tested indirectly d. is implicit 16. In testing whether riding a bicycle at least 30 minutes each day reduces weight, what would be the independent variable? a. the person’s age b. amount of time bicycling each day c. the person’s weight d. the person’s diet 17. Once information is collected, what is the first step in writing a literature review? a. create a unified theme for the review b. build bridges between different areas in the review c. work from an outline d. read other literature reviews 7 GRM697 The Research Process Final Examination 18. Which is NOT a hint to help you write your literature review? a. create a unified theme b. use a system to organize your materials c. make sure it is testable d. work from an outline 19. A well-written hypothesis _____________. a. creates a unified theme b. reflects a theory or body of literature upon which it is based c. searches through secondary sources d. uses participants in the study who have been used in similar studies 20. What does the ethical principle of “sharing benefits” mean? a. all participants in the same study should receive an equal share of the benefits or subject payments b. all those who belong to the population being studied will share equally from the benefits the study produces c. the results of studies must be shared with the public so society may benefit from the increased knowledge d. all groups involved in a study should eventually be given an opportunity to receive any treatments that were found to be effective in the study 21. The Tuskegee Syphilis Study is often used as an example of a ____________. a. groundbreaking study using Facebook b. study that did not take into account ethical considerations c. study guided by the ethical guidelines of the American Medical Association (AMA) d. study that breached confidentiality of participants 22.Discussion: The Research Process Final Exam Which is NOT a component of informed consent? a. the purpose of the research b. who you are c. how the participant can get a copy of the records d. a computer simulation of the data 8 GRM697 The Research Process Final Examination 23. Which of the following information should be provided in an informed consent form for any study involving human participants? a. the findings of the study b. the number of participants the study plans to use c. the procedures involved in the study d. the names of other participants 24. Sally selects classrooms of first graders to study the effects of teaching styles on math achievement. This is an example of _______________. a. stratified random sampling b. cluster sampling c. proportional sampling d. sampling error 25. Susan calls every 10th name in the student phone book to ask them to participate in her study. This is an example of _______________ sampling. a. simple random b. systematic c. convenience d. quota 26. Sampling error can be defined by which of the following statements? a. increased by increasing sample size b. larger as the diversity of sample values becomes smaller c. can be minimized by using simple random sampling d. becomes equal to zero over many samples 27. Which of the following statements is true with respect to sample size? a. use small samples when mailing questionnaires b. the greater the number of subgroups of interest to the study, the larger the sample c. more subjects are always better d. large samples increase sampling error 28. Which of these statements is true regarding cluster sampling? a. one example of a nonprobability sampling method b. individuals grouped together based on cluster of profile characteristics c. minimizes the risk of bias due to a heterogeneous population d. a great time-saver compared to simple random sampling 9 GRM697 The Research Process Final Examination 29. When might you need a larger sample to represent the population? a. the amount of variability within groups is small b. the difference between the two groups is small c. the difference between the two groups is great d. both a and c 30. David asks the first 10 freshmen he sees on campus a series of questions. Discussion: The Research Process Final Exam This is an example of a ____________ sampling technique. a. quota b. simple random c. convenience d. proportional stratified 31. Which of the following statements is false? a. Validity refers to the results of a test not the test itself. b. Validity progresses from low to high degrees rather than all or none. c. A test can lack validity and still be a reliable measure. d. A test can lack reliability and still be a valid measure. 32. What levels of measurement define most variables in behavioral and social science research? a. interval and ratio b. nominal and ordinal c. nominal and ratio d. nominal and interval 33. Which one of the following is NOT an important criterion for increasing reliability? a. eliminate unclear test items b. standardize the environmental conditions in which the test is given c. moderate the ease and difficulty of the test d. use subjective scoring procedures 34. Which of the following is an example of method error? a. subject fatigue b. unclear instructions c. lack of motivation d. bias in grading 10 GRM697 The Research Process Final Examination 35. Which is the least frequently established form of reliability? a. inter-rater b. internal consistency c. test-retest d. parallel 36. What are the two types of criterion validity? a. content and construct validity b. content and parallel validity c. predictive and parallel validity d. concurrent and predictive validity 37. Dr. Brown finds that results from different methods used to assess the same trait are highly correlated and results from different methods used to assess different traits are not significantly correlated. These results demonstrate which two types of validity respectively? a. predictive and concurrent b. concurrent and predictive c. discriminant and convergent d. convergent and discriminant 38. A test that measures knowledge of a specific topic is considered what type of test? a. achievement test b. attitude test c. personality test d. projective test 39. Which assessment technique is used in field work? a. Likert scaling b. Thurstone scaling c. observation d. item analysis 40. Which of the following is NOT a component of a multiple choice question? a. the stem b. the root c. distracters d. alternatives 11 GRM697 The Research Process Final Examination 41. Name a multiple choice item which provides a plausible but wrong answer. a. attracter b. alternative c. detractor d. distracter 42.Discussion: The Research Process Final Exam Which of the following is an example of poor characteristics of a questionnaire? a. Questions are objective and forthright. b. They are accompanied by a cover letter. c. They begin with the more difficult, thought-provoking questions while the reader is still attentive. d. There is a clear statement of transition when the topic of the questions changes. 43. Which of the following is a reason you need to be cautious when observing behavior? a. Your very presence may affect the behavior being observed. b. The researcher records everything that happens. c. Your questionnaire should not be too long and tedious. d. You may confuse the difficulty index with the discrimination index. 44. A good cover letter for a survey questionnaire has all but one of the following characteristics listed below. Which is NOT a characteristic of a good cover letter? a. The initial questions are relatively simple, nonthreatening and easy-to-answer. b. It is written on official letterhead. c. It promises confidentiality. d. It clearly states the purpose of the questionnaire and the importance of the study. 45. Which measure would be used to describe how far a test score is from the average test score? a. mean b. mode c. median d. standard deviation 46. In a set of scores with a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 5, what raw score is represented by a z-score of 1.00? a. 30 b. 55 c. 60 d. 20 12 GRM697 The Research Process Final Examination 47. In a set of scores with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15, what raw score is represented by a z-score of 2.00? a. 115 b. 130 c. 100 d. 70 48. In a normal distribution, what percentage of scores fall between the mean and a z-score of +1.00? a. 16% b. 34% c. 50% d. 95% 49. What is another phrase used to describe a bell-shaped curve? a. average curve b. regular-shaped curve c. normal curve d. elliptical curve 50. You are interviewing classmates to find out their political party affiliation. When you pick the measure of central tendency to use in presenting your results, which should you choose? a. range b. mode c. median d. mean 51. When you have ordinal data (such as class rank), which is the best measure of central tendency to use? a. range b. mode c. median d. mean 13 GRM697 The Research Process Final Examination 52. The minimum or maximum value that one would expect the test statistic to yield if the null hypothesis is true is an example of which of the following? a. critical value b. F value c. t-test score d. sampling mean 53. What can you conclude if the obtained value of a test statistic exceeds the critical value? a. The null hypothesis cannot be rejected. b. Discussion: The Research Process Final Exam You made an error when calculating the test statistic. c. The null hypothesis can be rejected. d. Your obtained value is not statistically significant. 54. In order to determine the critical value, which two pieces of information are needed? a. mean and sample size b. degrees of freedom and level of significance c. mean and standard deviation d. degrees of freedom and variance 55. If Professor Columbo is interested in the general trend of research findings regarding infant visual attention and childhood intelligence, what technique would be most amenable to his inquiry? a. Analysis of Variance (ANOVA) b. Meta-analysis c. Multiple Analysis of Variance (MANOVA) d. Factor analysis 56. What is the standard metric used in most meta-analytic studies called? a. standard deviation b. effect size c. sampling mean d. standard error 57. Which of the following statements regarding statistical significance is FALSE? a. The level of statistical significance and Type I error are the same thing. b. Statistical significance is the degree of risk you are willing to take that you will reject a null when it is actually true. c. When your results are found to be statistically significant, you can conclude that they will have a meaningful effect in the clinic. d. The researcher can determine the level of statistical significance. 14 GRM697 The Research Process Final Examination 58. The first step for conducting a meta-analysis is ____________. a. deciding on an appropriate statistical software package b. developing a system to code the various dimensions of the study c. collecting as many studies as possible (or at least a representative group) d. determining the most appropriate type of descriptive or correlational technique to examine the outcomes of the studies as a whole 59. In a study, the correlation coefficient for W and X is -0.25. The correlation coefficient for X and Y is 0.20. The coefficient of determination for X and Z is 0.16. The coefficient of alienation for Y and Z is 0.90. Which pair of variables has the highest amount of variance accounted for? a. X and Y b. X and Z c. Y and Z d. W and X 60. Which of the following statements is false? a. A correlation of .8 may be interpreted as weak. b. The higher the correlation is, the larger the “jump” in explained variance. c. A scattergram is a visual representation of a correlation between two variables. d. Discussion: The Research Process Final Exam The absolute value of the correlation coefficient is more important than the + or – sign. 61. Survey research would be most appropriate for which of the following research questions? a. the relationship between manual dexterity and typing speed b. parents’ attitudes toward sex education in schools c. the effectiveness of a weight management program for adolescents d. the relationship between eye-hand coordination and number of tennis wins 62. If you square a correlation coefficient and subtract this number from 1.00, what is the result? a. the coefficient of alienation b. the coefficient of determination c. the amount of variance NOT explained by the variance in each variable d. both a and c 15 GRM697 The Research Process Final Examination 63. Which of the following could be a potential problem in conducting survey research? a. information is collected over a short period of time b. producing accurate results c. getting a broad picture of what is being studied d. response rate 64. The coefficient of alienation describes the _____________. a. neutral information (such as age, gender, number of children) about the survey respondent b. amount of variance that is accounted for in one variable by the other variable c. most frequently used measure of relationships between variables d. portion of unexplained variance between the tested variables 65. “At what age did you start smoking?” is an example of _____________. a. a conventional question b. an open-ended question c. a structured question d. interviewer bias subtly changing the response 66. The last step in conducting historical research is _______________. a. interpreting the results b. formulating a hypothesis c. defining a topic or problem d. gathering data 67. In what situation would the researcher be adjacent to the environment, but NOT actively involved in the process being studied? a. a focus group b. participant observation c. direct observation d. an interview 68. Which is NOT a main function of focus groups? a. generating insight into previously misunderstood topics b. Discussion: The Research Process Final Exam in-depth information gathering on one participant c. understanding how group members arrive at their conclusions d. encouraging group interaction 16 GRM697 The Research Process Final Examination 69. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of ethnographic research? a. Ethnographers tend to examine the group or phenomenon as a whole rather than the sum of its parts. b. Ethnographers often use participant observation. c. Ethnographers develop a research question prior to initiating their research methods just as empirical researchers do. d. Ethnography is typically very time-consuming. 70. Which of the following is an example of a secondary source? a. a photograph b. a newspaper story describing an event c. a contract d. tools 71. External criticism, as applied to historical data, is concerned with the ______________ of the data. a. carbon dating b. accuracy c. authenticity d. ethnography 72. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of the case study method? a. It only reflects one reality and that one may reflect researcher bias. b. Generalizability of the findings is limited. c. It cannot establish cause-and-effect links. d. It provides a rich account of what is occurring. 73. In an experimental research study, which group does NOT receive treatment? a. control group b. experimental group c. research group d. participants groups 17 GRM697 The Research Process Final Examination 74. What is the proper order of the following designs if they are to be listed from the one with the least amount of control over variables to the most? a. pretest posttest control group, Solomon four-group, quasi-experimental, one-group pretest posttest b. one-group pretest posttest, quasi-experimental, pretest posttest control group, Solomon four-group c. one-group pretest posttest, pretest posttest control group, Solomon four-group, quasi-experimental d. quasi-experimental, one-group pretest posttest, pretest posttest control group, Solomon four-group 75. True experimental designs are NOT characterized by ______________. a. random selection from the population b. random assign …Discussion: The Research Process Final Exam Get a 10 % discount on an order above $ 100 Use the following coupon code : NURSING10

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